Someone recently forwarded this salvo of questions to me. They originate with a young man close to our circles with skin in the game, so to speak. He asks:
How could Joseph’s marriage to an Egyptian and Jacob’s recognition of Ephraim and Manasseh as legitimate heirs – despite their dilution of Israelite blood through their Egyptian mother – be legal?
This is a most understandable question. Because Egyptians as we know them today are of multiple castes and had different racial identities at different times prior. But herein too lies the answer. A careful reading of Genesis 42 confirms that at their reunion Joseph’s brothers took him to be an Egyptian. They could not even distinguish him — their own brother — from the majority population of Egypt at the time. This is because Egypt was at the time likely ruled by the Hyksos — Semitic shepherds who had taken the reins from the founding dynasties whom we now know to have been a Japhethic people. Either way, the admission of Joseph’s wife and children as legitimate was in terms of their Semitic heritage, which was on sight more or less indistinguishable from the Israelite ethnicity.
The same thing would …
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(The opinions in this article are the opinions of the author and do not necessarily represent the views of Southern Nation News or SN.O.)